I rarely, if ever, get into internet arguments, but there was a post of a FB friend, to which I replied with a scripture reference (which I often do). Here is how he replied and the ensuing conversation back and forth (the first statement is my original comment on his FB post) – he is identified by his initials (RL):
- SW: Matthew 19:24
- RL: Hoping you have a KJV Bible
- SW: I was on NIV and NKJV, but recently have switched to the most accurate English translation (NASB)_ see graphic:
I don’t use KJV, not because I think it is a bad translation, but because it is 17th century and I believe everyone should have the privilege and ability to read God’s Holy Word in the language they speak every day. I’ve read a lot on the “King James only controversy” and I believe that the original Greek and Hebrew manuscripts are the most accurate version of the Bible, not any English translation. God bless you RL
- RL: Your cleary Decived my friend The KJV is the Authentic Word of God because God can Preserve His Word like God has Preserved the Gospel of Jesus Christ
- RL: You also Question your faith I’ve Noticed .
- SW: Hi RL, I consider you a brother in Christ. We as brothers in Christ are supposed to have Unity. So I don’t want to get into a situation where we are arguing. I do want to say that I do not question my faith, but I practice apologetics, which is biblically commanded in 1st Peter 3:15. Just to clarify, are you saying that no other Bible but the KJV is the inspired word of God? If so what about the Christians who existed prior to the KJV being translated in the year 1611? Blessings to you, SW
- RL: Who ever said we were arguing? That’s an assumption that you made.
- RL: Yes it’s the first translation of the holy Bible God can Preserve His Word . So are you saying that God can’t Preserve His Word?
- SW: Well, you should research your history. It was not the first translation of the Bible in English, nor was it the first translation of the Bible period. It was translated in 1611, Jesus died in 30 or 33 AD, so if what you’re saying is true, Christians had no Bible for about the first 1600 years
- RL: Yes it was the First Translation in English. 1611 I’m also in Christian College
- RL: Why you lying for ?
- SW: Actually, someone’s been feeding lies to you, but it’s not me. I’m not lying RL, i’m trying to share the truth with you in love (Ephesians 4:15). The Tyndale Bible was the first English translation of the Bible in 1526 – 85 years before the King James version (https://www.gotquestions.org/Tyndale-Bible.html). But don’t trust me. Check it out for yourself – ask a professor at your Christian college.
- RL: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=eGwwScorP6w (History of The King James Bible: God’s Perfect Word) – Here is all your Info you need
- RL: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=6akZ5J1VLdg (Quick History of the King James Bible!)
- SW: The video you just sent me said in it that the KJV was NOT the first English translation (start listening around 1:15 into the video), so you must agree now that the King James Version WAS NOT the first English translation, right?
- SW: In researching the KJV Only issue, I’ve been rereading the excellent book “The King James Only Controversy: Can You Trust Modern Translations” by James R. White (https://www.amazon.com/King-James-Only-Controversy-Translations/dp/0764206052/ref=sr_1_1?ie=UTF8&qid=1504618243&sr=8-1 ). In there he points out that Erasmus, under pressure from Lee and Zuniga, included text that was found in no Greek manuscript in 1 John 5:7. KJV says “For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one” This is an inaccurate translation and was only included because he was pressured by those 2 since this was in the Latin Vulgate. See here (http://biblehub.com/1_john/5-7.htm ) for a comparison of this verse in KJV vs. modern translations. This incorrect passage included in the KJV is referred to as the “Comma Johanneum”.
I had always heard about these KJV only advocates, but never ran into one until now.